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Both contain the same compound, sure, but the effect it is not the same. I am not talking about pill form of generics, rather raw powder of generics.
100 mg Pfizer viagra really bind to the pde-6 receptors in the eyes ("Blue lines vision"), while 100 mg of generic viagra does not.
Perhaps the binding affinity towards the pde5, pde6 receptors is "less potent" with generics? Meaning that since the manufacturing process modifies the Ki binding affinity ever so slightly that it triggers other responses?
For example instead of having a Ki = 14.7 nM it could have a Ki = < 50 nnM, rendering useless at the same dose and needing more of the drug to achieve the same effect?
- I kind of wonder if this is the same what happens when "manufacturing" Methamphetamine/mdma/amphetamine through leuckart reaction vs NaBH4?
- Could it be because of impurities in the bases?
- Does anyone have noticed this also?
Have any other chemists noticed this?
100 mg Pfizer viagra really bind to the pde-6 receptors in the eyes ("Blue lines vision"), while 100 mg of generic viagra does not.
Perhaps the binding affinity towards the pde5, pde6 receptors is "less potent" with generics? Meaning that since the manufacturing process modifies the Ki binding affinity ever so slightly that it triggers other responses?
For example instead of having a Ki = 14.7 nM it could have a Ki = < 50 nnM, rendering useless at the same dose and needing more of the drug to achieve the same effect?
- I kind of wonder if this is the same what happens when "manufacturing" Methamphetamine/mdma/amphetamine through leuckart reaction vs NaBH4?
- Could it be because of impurities in the bases?
- Does anyone have noticed this also?
Have any other chemists noticed this?